Know Your Deen

Islamic QA for North America

February 14, 2009
by admin KyD
4 Comments

A Hook Up Site?

AssalaamuAlaikum wa Rahmatullaahi wa Barakatuhu.

As the admin of this site, I would like to take the time to inform the reading audience that this is not  a web-site that hooks readers up with each other. I have gotten a couple of emails to date requesting me to pass along email addresses to some person or another. This is a website for educational purposes, not entertainment purposes. Additionally, it’s impossible for me to know if a boy is hiding behind a girl’s name or vice versa. Thus, I might end up inadvertently getting a girl to talk to a boy…and, this would absolutely be a violation of not only legal confidentiality, but Sharia as well. If you’d like to meet each other, please, I encourage you to come to the masjid and meet your fellow Muslims in person*. Be brave! Take the leap! Utah Muslims don’t bite!

If you’d like a change in policy, leave a comment with an explanation of why things should change. If you’d like to be contacted by another reader, same applies: leave a comment with your reasoning. I ask that this be a public discussion so that other readers have the opportunity to weigh in. I will consider it for a nano-second if your reasoning is good enough. I will close comments once my decision has been made in consultation with the Imaam.

Comments will not be moderated. Please be good.

Wassalaam

*This is absolutely not intended to encourage intemingling of the genders. The only kind of communication alluded to in this post is that between woman to woman and man to man. Intermingling is frowned upon, especially on the masjid premises.

February 11, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

Impure after wudhu or not?

Q. This might be the easiest question, but if someone touches something impure after wudu, is the wudu invalid? IE: In the morning, when one wakes up and goes to ghusl he/she will turn on the shower handle to start the water with impure hands. If he/she touches the shower handle AFTER the ghusl and didn’t realize or forgot he/she had to clean it to make it pure, is the ghusl to be re-performed? Or should we do wudu? Or is this some sort of Makrooh ghusl I’ve yet to learn about…
A. Under general circumstances, touching something impure has nothing to do with wudhu. For example, a person touching blood, puss, changed a child’s diaper despite the hand becoming soiled in such an exchange,  etc. would not break wudhu. However, if one does touch something that is impure, or or for that manner says something foul, or attempts to play mind games for deceptive purposes, upon lying,  being provocative when uncalled for, etc. then making a fresh wudhu would be ideal. (This answer is for hanafees.) (Please see noor ul idah)

The ghusl had been completed despite the touch of impurity. Wuzu would also be viewed as complete. Since it is after the ablution and ghusal that the impurity was touched, all you had to merely do was wash the impurity off and be considered clean. (hanafee). Under ideal conditions, a fresh wuzu would be ideal as a result of touching filth. (Please see noor ul idah)

Had the impurity been that of and its spread upon the hand was beyond the dimension of a dirham, then this would not fall into the catorgory of not merely makrooh, but such a ‘touching’ would warrant a total washing off of the impurity.  Salah would not be accepted with an impurity which falls in the category of najasathi ghalizah which has a spread of a dirham upon the body. If by ‘impure’ you meant that you hands was merely not clean, but not as a result of najasathi ghalizah but najasati kafifa, then of course there would be no to worry about in this given situation.

Allah Certainly knows best.

February 10, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

zakat paid on each pay check or total earnings?

Q. Do I deduct my Zakaat from each pay check, or do I pay of my yearly total income?

A. One need not deduct their Zakaat from each pay check, nor from the total income. The criteria for paying zakaat are simple:

The eligible person must merely observe if they possessed the nisab amount on zakaatable monies/goods at the start and end of each Islamic year. If they did possessed the nisab amount at the start and end of the Islamic year, then such persons must view themselves eligible for paying zakat for the entire year. If they lost their wealth within the cause of this year and did not posses nisab during the cause of the given year, then from the point they had gotten the new nisab amount which makes them eligible, they must do their calulation for zakaat.

Example: (based on a query that was sent to us) In an Islamic year, (1st of Ramadaan to the 1st of ramadaan of the following year,) Maymoona earned $100 000. At he end of the Islamic year, she only had $7 000 left. She would only have to pay 2.5% (zakaat) on the $7 000. Her total amount of zakaat payment to the poor (or those that qualify for zakaat) would be $175. Had she decided to calculate her zakaatable income based on her yearly salary, she would be paying $2 500 instead of $175. This would be incorrect. For zakaat is not a tax, it is charity linked to worship. The One worshiped would not do injustice to the worshiper.

Example, Maymoona did not have any money on the 1st of Ramaadan. It is only from muharam 1st that she began to earn a salary. In such a case, she must calculate her zakaat from Muharam 1st. After the passing of one year upon her first earning, whatever zakaatable possessions she has would be eligible as payment for zakaat. The key criterion is that the set money received only becomes eligible for zakaat after one year, (should it not be used up.) Whatever remaining money exists upon passing of a year becomes eligible for zakaat! (Provided the owner has ownership of finances above the amount of nisab as well)

Example: Zaid had in his possession $5 000 on the 1st of muharam. The following year on muharam 1st he had in his possession zakatable assets of $3 000. He would pay only 2.5% (zakaat) on the $3 000.

Allah Certainly Knows Best.

February 3, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

eat together or alone?!

Q. Must a person always go to events they are invited to? Respond from Hadith please

A. It is sunnah to accept invitations. Rasulullah (sallallaahu alayhi wa sallam) accepted invitations. Proof exists that he sometimes made conditions that made His presence welcoming. He (sallallaahu alayhi wa sallam) also went to the house of his daughter, stood by the door, and thereafter left without attending to the given meal in the house of His son-in-law. (a reason for this does exist, see miskaat sharif)

Thus we learn, although one should not refuse an invitation without a valid reason, an acceptance does not mean that one has to attend the entire event, meal, etc. All an invitation means is that a person accepts on condition that they can be present.

The host must not force a person to attend. The host has the right to invite, just as the guest has the right to attend.

Should the host invite a specific person, and in guests honor the event is being held, then the person should attend so as to not embarrass the host. Should the guest decide not to attend,  then is such a situation the guest should make it known before arrangements are made that they would not be present.

Allah Certainly Knows Best.

February 3, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

Q. What if one wants to pray Tahajjud but cannot find the motivation of praying it by itself but the added incentive of praying Tahajjud with Witr would?

A. The easiest method to perform witr is after the isha salaah. Not much motivation or incentive would be needed to do it after the Isha Salaat. Additionally motivation as well as an incentive would may be required to get up and perform the tahajud salah and thereafter perform the witr during the latter part of the night. To bind and make tahajjud a necessity would be wrong. To be challenged and pray tahajjud at a time when duas are most likely to be accepted is greatly rewarding.

Allah Certainly Knows Best.

February 1, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

group zikr

Q. This past Ramadan, there was one time after Taraweeh we had a group tasbeeh and you told us before starting it that those who are of the opinion that this is Bid’ah, they’re welcome to leave and a few people at that point did leave. Anyways, I was listening to a scholar who said that saying “Allahu Allahu” etc. in a group chant is a huge form of Bid’ah and said that our beloved Nabi (SAW) never did anything like that. He said that this type of Sufism is completely wrong and anyone doing such an action has a grave punishment awaiting for them for they started something that the Prophet (PBUH) never did.
The reason I bring this up now is that this particular person is world-renowned so I would just like to know what the Ulama (of the world) have said upon these practices.
Because for me personally, when I was a part of that, it felt amazingly spiritual given it was in the masjid, late at night, in the blessed month of Ramadan, and there were throngs of people which helped create a sense of unity.

Q. Is their azkaar after salah?

Answer:

  1. The zikr you have mentioned can only be viewed as a bidah for that individual that believes that such a remembrance of Allah happens to be the only way to attain His pleasure. That no other way exists to make Zikr except this given way. To occasionally do it to show people the significance of zikr, and different methods of performing zikr is not bidah. Such an action would be part of sunnah. At moments of prayers, it would be recommended that such deeds be done out of the musjid sphere so as to not disturb those that wish to do other forms of ibaadah.
  2. Bidah has many levels to it. Some acts of bidah are close to shirk. Such actions would be forbidden. The bidah of zikr is part of bidah-e-hasanah.
  3. Hadeeth proves that the recitation of azkaar after salaah is an action very much part of sharia.  To teach people of its significance is also part of deen. Although it would be best that people make such zikr softly, or in a place of their choice (out of the musjid) so as to not make the act of zikr into a mockery, such actions performed occasionally can function as an inspiration to those that do not know how to perform zikr, or refrain from it out if sheer ignorance.
  4. The scholar would be correct if he is not opposed to such a practice on an occasional level, for reasons outlined above, otherwise his vehement denouncing of it can also function as a bidah.
  5. Zikr is not limited to sufis. The scholar would be correct to state that to impose such an act would be wrong. We too would agree that to impose this form of worship would be incorrect.
  6. How does this scholar define ‘huge bidah’ as opposed to a small bidah? Does he sanction only small actions of bidah? If so, what are they? Reciting the Quran is also a form a zikr. It is a practice that exists in many of the major musjids around world, including Makkah and Madinah. Would it also be stated that people memorizing the Quran in an audible manner in group setting are conforming to bidah? Attending the modern college environments, usage of cars, computers, airplanes, e-books, recordings of great scholars, etc. are all actions of bidah. Are these the works of sufis as well? (The answer he gives to sanction these behaviors can be the answers of sufies answers as well!!!)
  7. We must be cautious of how Bidah is defined. To define it haphazardly reduces our understanding of religion.
  8. Because a thing feels good does not justify its everyday public occurrence. Sometimes shaytan makes us attack a group with the false impression that we are defending religion or are more superiorly religious. Shaytan makes us do wrong things whilst giving us the false perception that we are making religious strides and are united despite us being in conflict with the sharia. We should not be fooled by the ploy of shaytan.

Allah Certainly Knows Best.

Also see: http://islaminaction.wordpress.com/2008/11/03/bidah-according-to-imam-nawawi

http://islaminaction.wordpress.com/2009/01/17/duaorzikraftersalah

February 1, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

everything has a time

Q. ….thus….can ASR salat be prayed at its early time. (misle-awal) I am not a shafee. Some seasons the time between ASR and magrib is very close where we live. It happens also in certain seasons. To avoid closeness in time, can we pray two salah together? shieks have allowed praying it early…

A. If the time is so narrow and or a special circumstance exists in which you cannot pray at the given correct time, then and then only can a person pray at what is termed as misle-awal (time period when the shadow of an object is single) – as used by the shawafees. Ahnaf by contrast abide by doing their salaah upon the time of Mislain (when the shadow of an object doubles.) Thus each should perform their salaah in accordance to their mazhab without making it into an issue of argument.

After all, few people (if any in modern times) are in the category of mujtahid (person who is qualified to derive laws from Quran and Hadith). Thus, it is best to pray in accordance to the mazhab you are part of.

Sometimes scholars refuse to allow people to pray according to their Mazhab. They impose their view. This too is wholly wrong.

Allah Certainly Knows Best.

February 1, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

Q. Do we pay zakaat on furniture?

A. Furniture for personal usage is not eligible for zakaat.

Allah Certainly Knows Best.

February 1, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

Q. I own a car, do I pay zakaat on it? Does it matter if I am making payments on this car?

A. Car owned for personal usage is not eligible for zakaat.

(If you were a car dealer, then you pay on each car on your lot based on its current market value.)

Allah Certainly Knows Best.

January 31, 2009
by Ml. Muhammed Shoayb
0 comments

so where do i really go?

Q. I was listening to an Islamic lecturer (name withheld) and he said it is not permissible for Muslims to be under non-Muslim rule i.e. here in America. He said that if this is the case, then American Muslims should leave the non-Muslim country and go and live in an Islamic one.
Further, he said that this was derived from a hadeeth but failed to mention the hadeeth when telling this to his audience.
Also, he lives in the US so isn’t he contradicting himself by saying that? This particular person is known (hopefully not infamously) for making rash statements from time to time.
Could you please shed some light on this issue?

A. The scholar is correct if it is meant that under perfect conditions Muslims should live in Islamic countries that are governed by Islamic principles.

Such comments are made as to address a perfect situation. We are not living under such ‘ideal’ conditions. Thus, we must live wherever we can, and make best of our situation. I am sure the scholar would agree with this response as well, Allah-willing.

Also, the scholar does need not give a hadeeth for everything he mentions. It is sufficient for him to have a basis for it, and he does not need to share his reasoning with everyone at all times.

The scholar residing in the United States could be doing so for reasons we are unaware of, or beyond his control. Thus we would not be able to comment on the aspect of his residence, nor can we make a link nor seek a contradiction between his claim of jihad and him attaining the residence (or security) within the United States. His claim and residence are separate issues. One is personal whilst the other is public. The first question you have posed is correct. The second portion calls for us to ‘think’ into the scholars mind. This would be a waste of time and could lead to a sin if such thoughts go by unmonitored.

Allah Certainly Knows Best.